2454 CHAPTER 72. THE HARD ITO FORMULA

−qk−1

∑j=1

(X(t j+1

)−X (t j)−

(M(t j+1

)−M (t j)

),( I−Pn)

(M(t j+1

)−M (t j)

))(72.6.15)

The sum in 72.6.15 is dominated by(qk−1

∑j=1

∣∣X (t j+1)−X (t j)−

(M(t j+1

)−M (t j)

)∣∣2)1/2

·

(qk−1

∑j=1

∣∣( I−Pn)(M(t j+1

)−M (t j)

)∣∣2)1/2

(72.6.16)

Now it is known that ∑qk−1j=1

∣∣X (t j+1)−X (t j)−

(M(t j+1

)−M (t j)

)∣∣2 converges in proba-bility to a. If you take the expectation of the other factor it is

E

(qk−1

∑j=1

∣∣∣∣( I−Pn)∫ t j+1

t j

Z (s)dW (s)∣∣∣∣2)

=qk−1

∑j=1

E

(∣∣∣∣∫ t j+1

t j

( I−Pn)Z (s)dW (s)∣∣∣∣2)

=qk−1

∑j=1

E(∫ t j+1

t j

||( I−Pn)Z (s)||2L2(Q1/2U,H)

)ds

≤ E(∫ T

0||( I−Pn)Z (s)||2

L2(Q1/2U,H) ds)

=∫

∫ T

0

∑i=n+1

(Z (s) ,ei)2 dsdP

The integrand converges to 0 as n→∞ and is dominated by ∑∞i=1 (Z (s) ,ei)

2 which is givento be in L1 ([0,T ]×Ω). Therefore, it converges to 0.

Thus the expression in 72.6.16 is of the form fkgnk where fk converges in probabilityto a as k→ ∞ and gnk converges in probability to 0 as n→ ∞ independently of k. Now thisimplies fkgnk converges in probability to 0. Here is why.

P([| fkgnk|> ε]) ≤ P(2δ | fk|> ε)+P(2Cδ |gnk|> ε)

≤ P(2δ | fk−a|+2δ |a|> ε)+P(2Cδ |gnk|> ε)

where δ | fk|+Cδ |gkn|> | fkgnk| and limδ→0 Cδ = ∞. Pick δ small enough that ε−2δ |a|>ε/2. Then this is dominated by

≤ P(2δ | fk−a|> ε/2)+P(2Cδ |gnk|> ε)

Fix n large enough that the second term is less than η . Now taking k large enough, theabove is less than η . It follows the expression in 72.6.16 and consequently in 72.6.15converges to 0 in probability.

2454 CHAPTER 72. THE HARD ITO FORMULA_ » (X (ti41) —X (tj) — (M (t}+1) —M(t;)) ,(1—Ph) (M (t}+1) —M(tj))) (72.6.15)j=The sum in 72.6.15 is dominated byKH! 2 1/2(int) (ara) <P)j=la=! > 1/2(E |(1— Pha) (M (t)+1) —M (t;))| (72.6.16)j=lNow it is known that ri |X (tj41) —X (tj) — (M (tj41) —M (t))) |? converges in proba-bility to a. If you take the expectation of the other factor it is))j=l= Se (/"" i\( PZ lia(oveu.n)) ds(1—P,) ["'z(s)aW(s)tj[" (1—P,)Z(s) dW (s)Felj=lJB( [it 2)Z0)ll:(os004)-[[ Yi (Z(s),¢;)?dsdPi=n+1lAThe integrand converges to 0 as n —+ o and is dominated by Y*., (Z(s) ,e;)” which is givento be in L! ({0,7] x Q). Therefore, it converges to 0.Thus the expression in 72.6.16 is of the form f,g,4 where f; converges in probabilityto aas k + and g,, converges in probability to 0 as n — o independently of k. Now thisimplies f; 27% converges in probability to 0. Here is why.P([lfeSnk| >€]) < P(26| fel > €) +P (2C5 |8nx| > €)< P(26| fe —a| +26 a] > €) +P (2C5 |gnk| > €)where 6 | f¢|+Cs5 |kn| > |fe8ne| and limg_,9 Cs = 09. Pick 5 small enough that ¢ — 26 |a| >€/2. Then this is dominated by<P (26 | fx —a| > €/2) +P (2C5 |8nx| > €)Fix n large enough that the second term is less than 71. Now taking k large enough, theabove is less than 7. It follows the expression in 72.6.16 and consequently in 72.6.15converges to 0 in probability.